Having established in my previous essay Reflections on Yule Part One-The Lie of Christmas (the Dating) that Jesus of Nazareth was not born on 25th December, I am now going to present my arguments for his non-existence in the historical record. Bear in mind that if he never existed then there could have been no birth, no death and no 'resurrection'!
When debating with Christians online regarding the existence of Jesus of Nazareth, I tend to encounter identical arguments, almost as if they have read the same instruction manual and quote the same 'evidence' parrot-fashion. The most annoying thing is that they assume that I have never researched the issue and then label me as 'arrogant' when I said that I have done so over many years and can find no evidence. When I ask them to provide me with some evidence they either do not reply or they say that 'there is more evidence for the existence of Jesus than Julius Caesar' (correctly pronounced as yulius kaiser). This of course is untrue but it is a falsehood that appears to be quite popular among unthinking and uncritical believers. There is an abundance of evidence to support the fact that Julius Caesar was a real and an historical figure.
Unlike Jesus of Nazareth, Caesar was a writer, and his accounts on the Gallic wars he was involved in, are discussed in detail in his commentarii de bello Gallico (Commentaries on the Gallic War), which in itself is primary and contemporaneous evidence of his existence. Caesar was an accomplished poet as a young man and his work was quoted by other Roman authors, although the poems themselves are now lost. We know the names of two of them: laudes Herculis (Praises of Hercules) and a verse tragedy, Oedipus. He was also mentioned in the letters and speeches of the Roman statesman, Cicero (Marcus Tullius Cicero) and the Roman historian and politician, Sallust (Gaius Sallustius Crispus).
There is also numismatic evidence for his existence; Caesar was the very first living Roman politician to have his portrait placed upon coins, namely silver denarii, struck in 44 BCE. He commissioned the building of monuments bearing his name, the most famous example being the Forum Iulium, which contained the Temple of Venus Genetrix (templum Veneris Genetricis), which emphasises Caesar's claimed descent from the goddess. After Caesar's brutal murder he was cremated and his ashes placed in the Temple of Divus Iulius (Aedes Divi Iulii).
Now how does the evidence, if any for Jesus of Nazareth compare to that of the divine Julius? Unlike Caesar, Jesus left behind no writings of any kind. His purported sayings in the canonical gospels (Matthew, Mark, Luke and John) are not first hand accounts and are alleged to have been authored between 65-100 CE. Given that Jesus is supposed to have been crucified between 30-33 CE, these gospel narratives cannot be said to be firsthand or primary accounts: they are secondary accounts and thus hearsay. Additionally, they are not secular accounts and thus not impartial. As such, the gospels would not stand up to scrutiny in a court of law!
Not only did Jesus not leave behind any writings but his name does not appear in any contemporaneous historical records. Believers will seek to explain this lack due to him being 'not very well known' and yet according to the gospel accounts he created quite a stir in Jerusalem and Judah, and terrestrial and celestial phenomena were supposed to have occurred at the time of his death, and yet not a whimper was raised in the otherwise meticulous records of the Roman scribes! If he did exist then he clearly was not considered to be important enough to warrant just one mention in the records, which makes the gospel accounts to be a lie!
At this point the believer will object and say, 'surely he was mentioned by the Roman historian, Tacitus?' There are two problems with that: firstly Tacitus was not alive during the alleged lifetime of Jesus (Tacitus lived from 56 CE to 120 CE) and thus anything he has to say on the matter is pure hearsay and not primary and contemporaneous evidence, but also he does not refer to a Jesus of Nazareth but a 'Christus' in his Annals. Christians and other apologists for the historical Jesus narrative tend to present Tacitus's reference as their strongest piece of 'evidence'. To be fair to them I will quote the relevant passage in full:
Consequently, to get rid of the report, Nero fastened the guilt
and inflicted the most exquisite tortures on a class hated for
their abominations, called Christians by the populace.
Christus, from whom the name had its origin, suffered
the extreme penalty during the reign of Tiberius at the
hands of one of our procurators, Pontius Pilate, and a most
mischievous superstition, thus checked for the moment,
again broke out not only in Judaea, the first source of the evil,
but even in Rome, where all things hideous and shameful
from every part of the world find their centre and become
popular.' (Annals 15:44)
What we need to focus on here first is the identity of the one called 'Christus', then everything else should become clear to my readers. It has been common knowledge among biblical scholars since 1902 that the term 'Christians' in the Annals is an alteration of 'Chrestians' in the earliest extant copy of the Annals in Florence. The letter 'i' had been clearly altered by a scribe from an 'e'. Is this a supposed later 'correction' of an earlier scribal error or a deliberate act of deception by a Christian scribe? Does the change of vowel make any difference? Before I answer this question I would like to turn to another Roman source which Christians point to as 'evidence' for their Jesus of Nazareth.
Suetonius (Gaius Suetonius Tranquillus), a Roman historian who lived from about 69 CE to after 122 CE refers to the expulsion of Jews from Rome by Claudius at sometime during the period 41-53 CE in his Lives of the Twelve Caesars (de vita Caesarum) and refers to a 'Chresto'. The actual Latin text is as follows:
Iudaeos impulsore Chresto assidue tumultuantis Roma expulit.
My translation: He expelled the Jews from Rome who were constantly making disturbances at the instigation of Chrestus.
The use of the term 'Chresto' by Suetonius accords with the term 'Chrestians' used by Tacitus to designate the followers of this man. It should be noted that 'Chresto' is the ablative case of 'Chrestus'. There is nothing in this quotation to suggest that 'Chrestus' equals Jesus Christ or Jesus of Nazareth. Jerusalem at this time was a hotbed of preachers, healers, false 'messiahs' and other assorted crackpots and as Tacitus mentioned, alternative ideas, philosophies and religions all gravitated towards Rome, just as they did in California in the 1960s and 70s: nothing new here! If we take Suetonius literally, then how could 'Chrestus' instigate his followers to create disturbances decades after his alleged death?
What if any is the difference in meaning between 'Chrestus' and 'Christus'? 'Christus' is the Latin translation of the Greek 'Khristos', meaning 'anointed one' and its Latin form is very rare outside of Christian circles. By comparison, 'Chrestus' from the Greek 'Khrestos' simply has the meaning of 'good' and bears no equivalency with 'Christus'/'Khristos'. Interestingly, 'Chrestos' was quite a common name at that time (particularly of freed slaves) and could have been carried by any anti-Roman rabble-rouser! Just because the two names seem similar is not a good enough reason to suppose that they relate to the same man or that man is Jesus of Nazareth but this is the very week defence put forward by generally pro-Christian Bible scholars (who as academics should know better) and believers.
In the mystery religions of the ancient world the term 'Khrestos' was used for an initiate undergoing trials prior to achieving enlightenment. In pre-Christian gnostic sects, 'Khrestos' was the term given to a suffering disciple seeking purification prior to enlightenment, while 'Christus' signified the one who had achieved enlightenment or perfection, having successfully passed through all his trials. They are thus, degrees of initiation and were in usage long before the birth of Christianity. They do not therefore, have to point to an historical person.
Another popular source for believers are the writings of the Jewish historian and Roman general, Flavius Josephus (born Yosef ben Mattityahu) about 37 to 100 CE. As with Tacitus and Suetonius, Josephus wasn't even alive during the alleged lifetime of Jesus of Nazareth so anything that he has to say must be regarded as hearsay but he is the closest in time to the life of Jesus. There are two references to 'Jesus' in his Histories of the Jews (antiquitates Iudaicae), written in 94 CE in a passage now referred to as the testimonium Flavianum (the Testimony of Flavius). He is unequivocally referred to in Book XVIII, chapter 3. However, they are now believed to be later interpolations made by Christian scribes. According to Professor Paul Hopper, the use of Greek verbs forms are distinctly different in the 'Jesus' passages compared to the rest of the text and that the passage is 'close in style and content to the creeds that were composed two to three centuries after Josephus.' The professor's conclusion was that 'the entire passage is interpolated.' (See 'A Narrative Anomaly in Josephus: Jewish Antiquities xviii: 63', 2014). So much for Josephus and the less said about that, the better!
What has Pliny the Younger (Gaius Plinius Caecilius Secundus, 61-about 113 CE) to say about Jesus of Nazareth? Strictly speaking, NOTHING. He does, however refer to the Christian sect and their god, Christ in his letter to Trajan, written around the year 112 CE. By equating Christ with a god who is worshipped is evidence of a rapidly developing theology but in itself is not evidence for an historical Jesus. Like the other classical writers, Pliny the Younger is not contemporaneous with the lifetime of the alleged Jesus.
they were accustomed to meet on a fixed day before
dawn and sing responsively a hymn to Christ as a
god, (Letter to Trajan)
All of the abovementioned writers represent the 'key' secular sources for the evidence in favour of an historical Jesus, and not a single one of the writers were alive during the alleged lifetime of 'Jesus of Nazareth'. How strange also that writers who were alive during his alleged lifetime such as Pliny the Elder (Gaius Plinius Secundus), 23/24-79 CE), Seneca the Younger (Lucius Anaeus Seneca), 4 BCE-65 CE and Philo of Alexandra (Philo Judaeus), about 20 BCE-about 50 CE never wrote a single jot about him!



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